Practice FAA Exams

Practice Test Questions


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Question Number: 4489 Subject Code: J16

(Refer to figure 85.) What route should you take if cleared for the Washoe Two Departure and your assigned route is V6?

A) Climb on the LOC south course to cross WAGGE at 9,000, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC and cross at or above 10,000, and proceed on FMG R 241.
B) Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where you will be vectored to V6.
C) Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC. If at 10,000 turn left and proceed on FMG R 241; if not at 10,000 enter depicted holding pattern and climb to 10,000 before proceeding on FMG R 241.
Question Number: 4923 Subject Code: I04

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

A) ground level.
B) sea level.
C) the standard datum plane.
Question Number: 4103 Subject Code: I24

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on

A) air temperature.
B) stability of air.
C) relative humidity.
Question Number: 4071 Subject Code: J15

For which speed variation should you notify ATC?

A) Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.
B) When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots.
C) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
Question Number: 4140 Subject Code: I28

Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

A) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
B) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
C) Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.
Question Number: 4625 Subject Code: I12

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?

A) When abeam the holding fix.
B) When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.
C) When the wings are level and the wind drift correction angle is established after completing the turn to the outbound heading.
Question Number: 4246 Subject Code: I48

(Refer to figure 12.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at 34,000 feet (see arrow C)?

A) 090?/48 knots.
B) 330?/50 knots.
C) 290?/50 knots.
Question Number: 4272 Subject Code: I05

(Refer to figures 30 and 30A.) What is your position relative to GNATS intersection and the SID departure routing?

A) On departure course and past GNATS.
B) Left of departure course and have not passed GNATS.
C) Right of departure course and past GNATS.
Question Number: 4537 Subject Code: J05

(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

A) yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.
B) yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
C) white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
Question Number: 4498 Subject Code: J35

(Refer to figure 87.) Why is the localizer back course at Jefferson Co depicted?

A) The back course is not aligned with a runway.
B) The back course has a glide slope.
C) The back course has an ATC function.
Question Number: 4066 Subject Code: B10

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

A) When operating in a Class A airspace.
B) When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
C) When operating in the Class E airspace.
Question Number: 4829 Subject Code: I04

(Refer to figure 143.) The heading on a remote indicating compass is 5? to the left of that desired. What action is required to move the desired heading under the heading reference?

A) Select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.
B) Select the free gyro mode and depress the counter clockwise heading drive button.
C) Select the slaved gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.
Question Number: 4913 Subject Code: I04

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

A) increase and true altitude will increase.
B) increase and true altitude will decrease.
C) decrease and true altitude will increase.
Question Number: 4104 Subject Code: I24

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A) water vapor is present.
B) the temperature and dewpoint are equal.
C) water vapor condenses.
Question Number: 4277 Subject Code: J15

(Refer to figure 32.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?

A) C.
B) R.
C) A.
Question Number: 4545 Subject Code: J19

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

A) 30 NM of a VOR.
B) 22 NM of a VOR.
C) 25 NM of a VOR.
Question Number: 4845 Subject Code: I05

As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?

A) Airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
B) Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
C) VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
Question Number: 4210 Subject Code: I53

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as

A) light turbulence.
B) light chop.
C) moderate turbulence.
Question Number: 4139 Subject Code: I28

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A) It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B) It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
Question Number: 4836 Subject Code: I05

What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a constant rate?

A) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
B) Heading indicator and attitude indicator.
C) Heading indicator and turn coordinator.
Question Number: 4143 Subject Code: I30

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A) Cumulus.
B) Dissipating.
C) Mature.
Question Number: 4297 Subject Code: J42

(Refer to figures 42, 42A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?

A) 15 feet.
B) 22 feet.
C) 18 feet.
Question Number: 4477 Subject Code: I04

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?

A) Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.
B) Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.
C) Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.
Question Number: 4307 Subject Code: I10

(Refer to figures 44, and 49.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria during the LORAN RNAV RWY S-10R approach at Portland International?

A) 900 MSL; visibility RVR/24.
B) 900 MSL; visibility 1 and 1/4 SM.
C) 900 MSL; visibility RVR/40.
Question Number: 4920 Subject Code: I04

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

A) VSI.
B) Attitude indicator.
C) Altimeter.
Question Number: 4251 Subject Code: J25

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
B) Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
C) One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
Question Number: 4790 Subject Code: J03

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5??

A) 11.
B) 12.
C) 10.
Question Number: 4866 Subject Code: I05

Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn?

A) Turn coordinator and attitude indicator.
B) Turn coordinator and heading indicator.
C) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
Question Number: 4038 Subject Code: B11

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace

A) at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
B) at and above 2,500 feet above the surface.
C) below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
Question Number: 4382 Subject Code: J01

(Refer to figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory?

A) 1.
B) 4.
C) 2.
Question Number: 4186 Subject Code: I43

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?

A) Unscheduled and issued as required.
B) Every 24 hours as required.
C) Every 12 hours as required.
Question Number: 4670 Subject Code: J18

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?

A) On approach control frequency.
B) One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.
C) On tower frequency.
Question Number: 4146 Subject Code: I30

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?

A) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.
B) Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.
C) Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.
Question Number: 4902 Subject Code: I04

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

A) ability to resist precession 90? to any applied force.
B) deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
C) resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
Question Number: 4111 Subject Code: I22

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

A) true altitude at field elevation.
B) pressure altitude at sea level.
C) pressure altitude at field elevation.
Question Number: 4907 Subject Code: I05

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately

A) 50 percent of the vertical speed.
B) 10 percent of the vertical speed.
C) 30 percent of the vertical speed.
Question Number: 4302 Subject Code: H34

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)
Route of flight Figures 44, 45, 46, and 47
Flight log & MAG VAR Figure 45
GROMO TWO DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD Figure 46

FT       3000     6000       9000        12000
YKM      1615     1926+12    2032+08     2035+05

A) 54 minutes.
B) 1 hour 07 minutes.
C) 1 hour 02 minutes.
Question Number: 4727 Subject Code: K04

While flying a 3? glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
C) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
Question Number: 4292 Subject Code: J41

(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) At which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin?

A) ACTON VORTAC.
B) CREEK intersection.
C) ABI VORTAC.
Question Number: 4813 Subject Code: J31

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

A) Avoid banking in excess of 30?.
B) Use a very rapid cross check.
C) Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly.
Question Number: 4327 Subject Code: J34

(Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?

A) 0700 to 2300.
B) 1800 to 1000.
C) 0600 to 2200.
Question Number: 4840 Subject Code: I05

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

A) Cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
B) Aircraft control, cross check, and instrument interpretation.
C) Instrument interpretation, cross check, and aircraft control.
Question Number: 4503 Subject Code: B11

(Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?

A) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes.
B) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.
C) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.
Question Number: 4247 Subject Code: I48

(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity on the Observed Winds Aloft Chart (see arrow A) is indicated from the

A) southwest at 35 knots.
B) northeast at 35 knots.
C) northwest at 47 knots.
Question Number: 4562 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?

A) 166?.
B) 346?.
C) 354?.
Question Number: 4346 Subject Code: H34

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)
Route of flight Figures 69, 70, and 71
Flight log and MAG VAR Figure 70
JUDDS TWO ARRIVAL
and Excerpt from AFD Figures 72 and 72A

FT        3000      6000      9000
BDL       3320      3425+05   3430+00

A) 1 hour 14 minutes.
B) 50 minutes.
C) 58 minutes.
Question Number: 4705 Subject Code: I07

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?

A) The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.
B) The course width for the localizer will always be 5? while the SDF course will be between 6? and 12?.
C) The useable off course indications are limited to 35? for the localizer and up to 90? for the SDF.
Question Number: 4219 Subject Code: I47

(Refer to figure 18, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC, and northern FL indicate a

A) tropical storm.
B) tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.
C) hurricane.
Question Number: 4729 Subject Code: J10

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

A) Middle compass locator.
B) Inner marker.
C) Outer marker.
Question Number: 4504 Subject Code: J35

On what frequency should you obtain En Route Flight Advisory Service below FL 180?

A) 122.0.
B) 123.6.
C) 122.1T/112.8R.
Question Number: 4592 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 210? magnetic bearing FROM the station?

A) 4.
B) 3.
C) 2.
Question Number: 4162 Subject Code: I32

Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?

A) Increased visibility.
B) Fog.
C) Convective turbulence due to surface heating.
Question Number: 4483 Subject Code: I04

(Refer to figure 83.) Which altimeter depicts 12,000 feet?

A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.
Question Number: 4832 Subject Code: I05

The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight and level flight?

A) Attitude indicator.
B) Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.
C) Magnetic compass.
Question Number: 4848 Subject Code: I05

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?

A) Airspeed indicator.
B) VSI.
C) Attitude indicator.
Question Number: 4553 Subject Code: I08

An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?

A) 1 1/2 miles.
B) 3 1/2 miles.
C) 2 1/2 miles.
Question Number: 4430 Subject Code: B11

What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on Top clearance?

A) Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.
B) Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.
C) Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
Question Number: 4035 Subject Code: A20

To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least

A) a First Class Medical certificate.
B) a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
C) a Category II pilot authorization.
Question Number: 4433 Subject Code: B11

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180?, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)

A) An odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
B) Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions.
C) An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
Question Number: 4182 Subject Code: I42

What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?

METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN
BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42

A) Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
B) Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.
C) Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.