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Practice Test Questions


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Question Number: 4352 Subject Code: J42

(Refer to figure 73.) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?

A) Upon reaching 374 feet AGL.
B) When reaching 374 feet MSL indicated altitude.
C) When 3 minutes (at 90 knots groundspeed) have expired or reaching 374 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.
Question Number: 4816 Subject Code: J31

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

A) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
B) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.
C) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
Question Number: 4102 Subject Code: I24

What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?

A) You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.
B) The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.
C) The temperature is below freezing at your altitude.
Question Number: 4534 Subject Code: J05

(Refer to figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

A) black lettering with a yellow background.
B) white lettering with a red background.
C) yellow lettering with a black background.
Question Number: 4678 Subject Code: I10

(Refer to figure 128.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?

A) It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
B) It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020? and 290? magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.
C) It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.
Question Number: 4285 Subject Code: I10

(Refer to figures 36A.) What is the minimum number of waypoints required for the complete RNAV RWY 33 approach procedure including the IAF's and missed approach procedure?

A) One waypoint.
B) Three waypoints.
C) Two waypoints.
Question Number: 4391 Subject Code: J01

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?

A) Plus or minus 4? when set to identical radials of a VOR.
B) 6? between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
C) 4? between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
Question Number: 4083 Subject Code: B10

What minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?

A) From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
B) From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
C) From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.
Question Number: 4305 Subject Code: J34

(Refer to figure 46.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?

A) 0600 to 2200 local.
B) 0500 to 2100 local.
C) 0700 to 2300 local.
Question Number: 4478 Subject Code: I04

How can you determine the pressure altitude at an airport without a tower or FSS?

A) Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.
B) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.
C) Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.
Question Number: 4457 Subject Code: J14

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?

A) At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.
B) At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition.
C) Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.
Question Number: 4607 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figure 110.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

A) Northwest.
B) Northeast.
C) Southwest.
Question Number: 4413 Subject Code: I08

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

A) 0.
B) 1.3.
C) 1.
Question Number: 4790 Subject Code: J03

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5??

A) 11.
B) 12.
C) 10.
Question Number: 4684 Subject Code: I10

(Refer to figure 129.) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?

A) Any approved RNAV receiver.
B) An approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance.
C) A transponder and an approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance.
Question Number: 4516 Subject Code: J35

(Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?

A) 60 NM from JAC VOR/DME.
B) 35 NM from DBS VORTAC.
C) 60 NM from DBS VORTAC.
Question Number: 4683 Subject Code: I10

(Refer to figure 129.) What is the position of LABER relative to the reference facility?

A) 198?, 8 NM.
B) 316?, 24.3 NM.
C) 177?, 10 NM.
Question Number: 4024 Subject Code: A20

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A) Flight into an ADIZ.
B) Flight into class A airspace.
C) Flight through an MOA.
Question Number: 4259 Subject Code: B07

(Refer to figures 21 and 21A, 22 and 22A, 23, 24, 25, and 26.) After departing GJT and arriving at Durango Co., La Plata Co. Airport, you are unable to land because of weather.
How long can you hold over DRO before departing for return flight to the alternate, Grand Junction Co., Walker Field Airport?
Total useable fuel on board, 68 gallons.
Wind and velocity at 16,000, 2308-16?.
Average fuel consumption 15 GPH.

A) 1 hour 42 minutes.
B) 1 hour 33 minutes.
C) 1 hour 37 minutes.
Question Number: 4434 Subject Code: J09

MOAs are established to

A) separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
B) restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.
C) prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
Question Number: 4169 Subject Code: I31

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?

A) Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a land surface.
B) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.
C) Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.
Question Number: 4449 Subject Code: J14

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?

A) VFR only.
B) VFR when ``in the clear'' and IFR when ``in the clouds.''
C) VFR and IFR.
Question Number: 4011 Subject Code: B08

What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?

A) Appropriately rated in the aircraft.
B) Private pilot with instrument rating.
C) Private pilot.
Question Number: 4059 Subject Code: J15

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?

A) Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.
B) When requested or advised by ATC.
C) Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.
Question Number: 4571 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``I'' correspond?

A) 12.
B) 11.
C) 4.
Question Number: 4575 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``A'' correspond?

A) 8.
B) 1.
C) 11.
Question Number: 4698 Subject Code: B97

(Refer to figure 133.) What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern at Riverside Municipal?

A) Direct.
B) Parallel.
C) Teardrop.
Question Number: 4262 Subject Code: H34

(Refer to figures 22 and 24.) For planning purposes, what would the highest MEA be on the flight planned between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport?

A) 16,000 feet.
B) 12,000 feet.
C) 15,000 feet.
Question Number: 4685 Subject Code: I07

(Refer to figure 130.) How does an LDA facility, such as the one at Roanoke Regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility?

A) The LOC is offset from the runway.
B) The LOC is wider.
C) The GS is unusable beyond the MM.
Question Number: 4674 Subject Code: J01

(Refer to figure 128.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?

A) The airborne DME will ``search,'' but will not ``lock on.''
B) The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
C) The airborne DME will always indicate ``0'' mileage.
Question Number: 4119 Subject Code: I27

What are the characteristics of stable air?

A) Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.
B) Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus-type clouds.
C) Good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.
Question Number: 4244 Subject Code: I47

(Refer to figure 20.) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky?

A) 30,000 feet sloping to 40,000 feet MSL.
B) 34,000 feet MSL.
C) 34,000 feet - flight level.
Question Number: 4423 Subject Code: J33

What does the ATC term ``Radar Contact'' signify?

A) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
B) You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
C) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
Question Number: 4517 Subject Code: J35

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?

A) 11,100 feet.
B) 8,300 feet.
C) 13,000 feet.
Question Number: 4381 Subject Code: J14

During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should

A) wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
B) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
C) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.
Question Number: 4609 Subject Code: J17

(Refer to figure 112.) You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350?. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure?
''...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS...''

A) 1; teardrop entry.
B) 1; direct entry.
C) 2; direct entry.
Question Number: 4762 Subject Code: B10

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

A) As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
B) As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
C) As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.
Question Number: 4248 Subject Code: I50

(Refer to figure 9.) The heavy line with an arrowhead delineates an area of probable general thunderstorm activity (AUG 25 panel) located

A) to the right and inside the line extending south through Michigan, Oklahoma, and ending in North Carolina.
B) only in hatched areas.
C) to the right of the line when facing in the direction of the arrow.
Question Number: 4157 Subject Code: I26

A high cloud is composed mostly of

A) ozone.
B) ice crystals.
C) condensation nuclei.
Question Number: 4055 Subject Code: B11

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?

A) VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.
B) VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
Question Number: 4577 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``C'' correspond?

A) 12.
B) 6.
C) 7.
Question Number: 4418 Subject Code: J40

A particular SID requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

A) 450.
B) 490.
C) 210.
Question Number: 4727 Subject Code: K04

While flying a 3? glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
C) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
Question Number: 4540 Subject Code: J18

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

A) 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.
B) 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.
C) 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
Question Number: 4101 Subject Code: I24

To which meteorological condition does the term ``dewpoint'' refer?

A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
B) The temperature at which dew will always form.
C) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
Question Number: 4406 Subject Code: J15

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?

A) FAA AFSS/FSS.
B) Airport/Facility Directory.
C) Notices to Airmen publications.
Question Number: 4796 Subject Code: J03

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

A) rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
B) rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.
C) a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
Question Number: 4890 Subject Code: I05

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A) The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
B) The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
C) The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
Question Number: 4856 Subject Code: I05

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?

A) Quality of the turn.
B) Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.
C) Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
Question Number: 4531 Subject Code: J06

(Refer to figure 93.) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?

A) 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 10,000 feet MSL.
C) 4,000 feet MSL.
Question Number: 4321 Subject Code: J35

(Refer to figure 55.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?

A) After descending to 1,440 feet MSL.
B) When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile.
C) After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first.
Question Number: 4013 Subject Code: A20

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?

A) 90 days.
B) 12 months.
C) 6 months.
Question Number: 4662 Subject Code: B97

(Refer to figure 127.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to

Category A aircraft
Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet

A) proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart.
B) proceed straight in from CRISY to the S-28 minimums of 1620-1.
C) proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.
Question Number: 4005 Subject Code: B10

If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for

A) 1 hour at normal cruising speed.
B) 30 minutes at slow cruising speed.
C) 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Question Number: 4415 Subject Code: J11

If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which tower function is assumed by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?

A) Approach control clearance.
B) Airport Advisory Service.
C) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
Question Number: 4361 Subject Code: J40

(Refer to figure 77.) At which point does the basic SID terminate?

A) Over the BOZEMAN VOR.
B) At STAKK intersection.
C) When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact.
Question Number: 4913 Subject Code: I04

If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

A) increase and true altitude will increase.
B) increase and true altitude will decrease.
C) decrease and true altitude will increase.
Question Number: 4746 Subject Code: B97

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?

A) Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.
B) Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.
C) Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.
Question Number: 4627 Subject Code: J18

If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting ``timed approaches from a holding fix''?

A) The pilot must contact the airport control tower prior to departing the holding fix inbound.
B) The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed straight in MDA minimums for the IAP.
C) The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.
Question Number: 4297 Subject Code: J42

(Refer to figures 42, 42A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?

A) 15 feet.
B) 22 feet.
C) 18 feet.