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Practice Test Questions

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Question Number: 4735 Subject Code: J19

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?

A) The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.
B) The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
C) The pilot must agree to the approach when given by ATC and the controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.

Question Number: 4170 Subject Code: I43

The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a

A) 10 to 15 mile radius of the center of an airport.
B) 5 to 10 mile radius of the center of an airport.
C) 15 to 20 mile radius of the center of an airport.

Question Number: 4655 Subject Code: J18

(Refer to figure 124.) What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field?

A) If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed.
B) A normal procedure turn may be made if the 10 DME limit is not exceeded.
C) The point where the turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional.

Question Number: 4917 Subject Code: K04

When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?

A) A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent.
B) A sudden surge of thrust.
C) A sudden change in airspeed.

Question Number: 4110 Subject Code: I22

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

A) Pressure.
B) Indicated.
C) Calibrated.

Question Number: 4010 Subject Code: A20

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?

A) All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
B) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
C) Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

Question Number: 4141 Subject Code: I27

What is indicated by the term ``embedded thunderstorms''?

A) Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
B) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.
C) Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.

Question Number: 4227 Subject Code: I20

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A) Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
B) Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.
C) Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.

Question Number: 4598 Subject Code: I08

(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 090? magnetic bearing FROM the station?

A) 6.
B) 3.
C) 4.

Question Number: 4184 Subject Code: I43

A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?

A) Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.
B) Pilot weather reports (PIREP's), AIRMET's, and SIGMET's.
C) The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.